Originally Posted by
ClarkKent
I just want to ensure I understand that the punter consensus (not including all of you sending me supportive PM's lol) here is that it is A. ok for a client to use someone else's sperm in a situation that implicates that third-party in a crime and B. it's ok for an escort to self-impregnate (not sure of the science here but hey it's a discussion) for child-support, as long as they claim that it is a fetish. That's what I am getting from this. Otherwise, I would love to hear why one of these is ok but the other is not.